re: #320 Obdicut

But that doesn’t exist. That’s a hyperbolic strawman.

What people are saying is that the government has a claim to a portion of the wealth or income in the country, in order to pay for programs that are to the benefit of the country.

Do you disagree with that?

I think you and I would disagree hugely on what that portion should be.

If someone can call tax cuts “spending”, what does that say about them ?
The implication there is that the money is the government’s in the first place, and that they are “spending” it by graciously allowing someone to keep a bit more of their ill-gotten gains.